Robert Monroe Posted July 29, 2010 Share Posted July 29, 2010 Fixed. becuse I use Aristotle'sdifintion of 'Aristocracy', and thiswould not be so.But true. I absolutely depiste corporativism. It is the anti-socialist ideal, and it directlyconflicts with our goal. Furthermore, it isan inneficient system, because only a tinyfraction would get the benefits of everything.Well technically an aristocracy is simply rule by the best. The wealthy are the ones in power. Used to be you inherited that power, but then the rise of the middle class came and now they have become what they once stood against, albeit in a different form.And then their children again inherit this power. IRONY. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest DRL Posted July 29, 2010 Share Posted July 29, 2010 Well technically an aristocracy is simply rule by the best. The wealthy are the ones in power. Used to be you inherited that power, but then the rise of the middle class came and now they have become what they once stood against, albeit in a different form.Yes, but Aristotle never definedEXACTLY 'what' was 'the best'.As far as we know, the 'Aristocracy'of previous times was nothing morethan an 'Olygarchy' (the nobles usedtheir money and resources to helpthemselves, after all.) however theyused the term Aristocracy, as if tomean 'we are the best' (but I differ.)And then their children again inherit this power. IRONY.The Olygarchy became theBurgueois. Then it becomethe large-scale industrialist/corporative. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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